Purchase PRMIA : 8011 Exam Materials and then pass exam easily
Last Updated: Oct 16, 2026
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PRMIA 8011 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Counterparty Risk | - Counterparty exposure
|
| CVA and DVA | - Debit valuation adjustment
|
| Credit Portfolio Management | - Portfolio monitoring
|
| Modern Credit Risk Modeling | - Portfolio risk models
|
| Classic Credit Risk Methodology | - Risk management practices
|
| Standardized Approach for Counterparty Credit Risk | - SA-CCR framework
|
| Classic Credit Products and Lifecycle | - Credit lifecycle management
|
| Management of CVA and DVA | - Operational implementation
|
| Credit Derivatives and Securitization | - Securitization structures
|
PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Sample Questions:
Which of the following is not a permitted approach under Basel II for calculating operational riskcapital
- A. the advanced measurement approach
- B. the basic indicator approach
- C. the internal measurement approach
- D. the standardized approach
Correct Answer: C 🗳️
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For the purposes of calculating VaR, an interest rate swap can be modeled as a combination of:
- A. two zero coupon bonds
- B. a fixed coupon bond and a floating rate note
- C. a fixed rate bond and a zero coupon bond
- D. a zero coupon bond and an interest rate swap
Correct Answer: B 🗳️
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There are two bonds in a portfolio, each with a market value of $50m. The probability of default of the two bonds are 0.03 and 0.08 respectively, over a one year horizon. If the probability of the two bonds defaulting simultaneously is 1.4%, what is the default correlation between the two?
- A. 25%
- B. 100%
- C. 0%
- D. 40%
Correct Answer: A 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Pass4SureQuiz members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
When estimating the risk of a portfolio of equities using the portfolio's beta, which of the following is NOT true:
- A. use of the beta assumes that the portfolio is diversified enough so that the specific risks of the individual stocks offset each other
- B. relies upon the single factor CAPM model
- C. explicitly considers specific risk inherent in the portfolio for risk calculations
- D. using the beta significantly eases the computational burden of calculating risk
Correct Answer: C 🗳️
Explanation: Only visible for Pass4SureQuiz members. You can sign-up / login (it's free).
Conditional VaR refers to:
- A. expected average losses above a given VaR estimate
- B. value at risk when certain conditions are satisfied
- C. expected average losses conditional on the VaR estimates not being exceeded
- D. the value at risk estimate for non-normal distributions
Correct Answer: A 🗳️
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